Women in Power

As a student of Medieval history I have read a vast number of papers by other students of such history. As the academy has grown more and more heavily female, the proportion of papers about Medieval history that are feminist has waxed larger and larger. Young women who go to college and then grad school are very likely to be feminists, and they want to study women and power-struggle issues because that's what they're interested in anyway. As a consequence, I have read variations of the following paper probably thousands of times:
As a feminist historian, I study the ways in which women were able to pursue and achieve their goals in spite of the restrictive patriarchy of the Middle Ages. In my study of X, I examined the way that she/they were able to achieve a remarkable degree of success in pursuing her/their goals. Even more surprisingly, given the strident patriarchy of the era, I found that her/their chief allies were often the men in her/their lives rather than other women.
I have read this paper many, many times -- about individual women or groups, across social classes whether nobility in Ireland or criminals in France, laity or nuns or abbesses, bakers and brewers and housewives. The conclusion of their research always comes as a surprise, an exception to the reality they assume held sway.

Except it's not an exception; all these papers find the same things, everywhere they look. Just because I have read it so often, I have long been waiting for the breakout female historian who will similarly read such papers and come to question the assumptions they brought to their initial work. Maybe we've been sold a bill of goods about how men and women related in the Middle Ages, as we were about the idea that medieval people thought the world was flat. At one time everyone 'knew' that was true, but it just wasn't the case.

The woman who makes this breakthrough -- and it will have to be a woman, because a man making that argument would never get anywhere, especially not in academia -- will one day be recognized as a historian of the first water. She will overturn the whole field of Medieval studies by showing that some of its basic assumptions are false. She will also improve her contemporary world, both by speaking the truth, but also by improving the relationship between educated men and women who are now taught to view each other as oppositional classes of beings.

While we aren't all the way there yet, historian Erika Graham-Goering has taken us a major step further. She studies especially the area of France around the early period of the Hundred Years War, sort of the height of High Medieval feudalism. What she found ought to be astonishing: she found that women held exactly as large a proportion of positions of power in Medieval France as they do today -- and more than they did after the modern revolution in France.
When historian Erika Graham-Goering checked the number of women who were in power worldwide five years ago, she was surprised. The proportion was the same as it was in France in the 14th century: one in five.
Graham-Goering’s area of expertise is power, who held it, and how it was exercised in the late Middle Ages....  
Graham-Goering focuses on how society was organised. An important finding is that the exercise of power was much less authoritarian and more productive than the impression created in later times. It was about finding practical solutions to situations that arose in the moment.... 
“Women were somewhat more vulnerable to coups, but nonetheless, one in five of those in power were women. When Jeanne married, she remained the legitimate owner of the land.”

Noblemen and women performed many of the same leadership tasks, although few women went to war. An important exception here is Joan of Arc (1412–1431), now a saint in the Catholic Church. For a period during the Hundred Years’ War, she led the French army in the war against England.

“It’s a thought-provoking fact that women lost power after the French Revolution and the introduction of democracy. They could neither be elected nor vote themselves. Whereas when positions were inherited, they actually had a reasonably good chance of being at the top of the hierarchy and in power,” Graham-Goering concludes.

The rise of science in the early modern period has a similar feature: people like to think that history is the story of progress, so that the rise of science should align with a greater acceptance of women and an end to superstitions like witch-burning. In fact, we invented science when we started burning witches. The rise of science and superstition went hand in hand, accompanied with a rise in cultural misogyny. 

By the way, in the US Congress it's a about one-in-four: 25 Senators plus the Vice President as a tiebreaker, 127 of 435 in the House. The fact that I didn't know that without looking it up suggests that we don't really view it as that big a deal; I know how many Republicans and Democrats there are in the Senate without having to look, for example. Among governors, it'll be 13 of 50. It's interesting that these very different times and places have settled on about the same ratio, in spite of having completely different methods of selection. That might also be worth studying, but it is not properly a question for historians. 

11 comments:

james said...

Rodney Stark described some of the witch-hunting as part of several books, this being one. One possible commonality between inventing science and hunting witches is the application of logic. If you stipulate that witches are real and have power, from where does that power come: God or the devil? It's plainly not "natural" (except of course that in many places in the world it absolutely is; poison), and it's plainly not divine power; which leaves the devil. Add in the diabolical Malleus, and you can link it to the greater crime of heresy.
At that point, given the somewhat unsettled social conditions, hunting could become a fashion. As your linked post notes, the protestant areas saw the bulk of this. I read that the Spanish Inquisition (witchcraft wasn't their focus anyhow) dismissed almost all cases, and only one stood out--a woman who kept insisting that she was a witch.

Assistant Village Idiot said...

CS Lewis described magic and science as cousins, growing up for the same reason: an attempt to manipulate the world around you rather than just put up with it and adapt to it. Much of folk magic even has the formulaic aspects of scientific processes. "Walk three times backwards around an oak stump while saying the Lord's Prayer to undo the spell against you."

Thomas Doubting said...

I don't think the beginning of science correlates with the beginning of witch burning. Logic-driven (i.e., induction & deduction) natural philosophy was established by Aristotle and other philosophers in the ancient world, and it included mathematics and observation (e.g., Ptolemaic astronomy). That is typically where history of science texts and courses begin. From there it developed over time until reaching more-or-less its modern form in the mid-to-late-19th century.

Is there a key change in science (or natural philosophy, really) you have in mind that correlates to the witch burning era?

Grim said...

Yes, the whole model changed. The word ‘science’ doesn’t mean the same thing anymore; for Aristotle a ‘science’ is a unified field of study. That’s why he begins the Metaphysics with an inquiry into whether it can be a proper science, since it seems to embrace everything rather than a particular thing.

After the scientific revolution, which really begins with late medieval nominalism and its shift to empirical inquiry and skeptical analysis, science is a process. Whatever you are studying, it’s science if you’re applying the scientific method sincerely. The presence or absence of the method, rather than the unity of the field of inquiry, determines whether you are doing science.

This is what ties them together: the loss of the authority of the Church enables the rise of Protestant faith and also witch burning; but it also allows the Aristotelian scientific tradition that the Church had inherited and made its own to be questioned.

Grim said...

Oh, and the scientific revolution is not 19th century, it’s 16th and 17th. The 1400s were where key groundwork was laid (15th century); the usual hard date for the start of it is 1543 (publication of Copernicus’ first revolutionary work).

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Revolution

Assistant Village Idiot said...

As for women in power, I have read some similar things over the years, enough to be similarly amused. The Germanic tribes had some tradition of female land ownership and eligibility to take up trades forbidden to them in other places, such as brewing and cloth trades. The Church also had avenues for women to have real power and authority. These reinforced the rights to inherited titles you mention, that contributed to the overall picture of women. Power was uneven and generally less available to women, but it was nothing near the either-or situation that women expect to see when studying the Middle Ages.

David Foster said...

Professors and the Pornography of Power:
https://chicagoboyz.net/archives/56415.html

Thomas Doubting said...

Yeah, the meaning of the word changed, but the practice and name of the activity was natural philosophy. While it developed and changed over about 2 millennia, Aristotle was doing it and so was Newton (Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica anyone?).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_philosophy

NB, from that article: "Modern meanings of the terms science and scientists date only to the 19th century. Before that, science was a synonym for knowledge or study, in keeping with its Latin origin. The term gained its modern meaning when experimental science and the scientific method became a specialized branch of study apart from natural philosophy, especially since William Whewell, a natural philosopher from the University of Cambridge, proposed the term "scientist" in 1834 to replace such terms as "cultivators of science" and "natural philosopher"."

There are serious arguments in the history of science that there was no Scientific Revolution per se. See the continuity thesis in the article you linked:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Revolution#Criticism

Although I have not gone very deeply into the topic, I tend to agree with the continuity thesis on this point. That said, I'm certainly open to arguments against that thesis. This is not my specialty. One thing I will probably stand by is that, if there was such a revolution, it was a revolution in natural philosophy as all of the key players were either mathematicians (like Copernicus) or natural philosophers.

Grim said...

I often take the Continuity side of that debate, but the point isn't that there was no revolution: there were definitely several, including the Protestant Reformation, the scientific revolution, and a number of political revolutions as well. The point is just that the Revolution side often overstates how clean the break was, and understates how much there was a continuation of existing things.

That said, one area of clear power and importance was the undermining of Aristotelian physics. The new physics is completely different from what Aristotle thought. Aristotle believed that different objects move in different ways because they have different natures, for example; Newton showed that F=ma regardless of what kind of object is in motion. Aristotle had four causes, the new physics really only had one (efficient cause).

Coupled with the cosmology changes that undermine Aristotle's metaphysics, these changes greatly damaged the authority of the Church (which had adapted its own physical and metaphysical teachings to Aristotle's during Aquinas' era). More, though, they undermined the power of authority in general. If we are now open to rethinking what the Ancient Wise said on these basic matters, why not on other matters? If the Church is wrong about the crystal spheres, why couldn't it be wrong about the existence of witches? And why shouldn't we just all read the Bible ourselves, like the Protestants say?

So there's definitely a powerful shift underway in this era. It improved some things, but not everything. In some ways I have argued it went too far in discrediting Aristotle's physical works: for example, while it doesn't make a difference to the physics if a thing is a pound of lead or a pound of iron, it does make a difference if it is a pound of lead or a bird that weighs a pound. The bird really does have a different nature that will impact how it moves, one that includes both a capacity for flight and a will of its own. The new physics ends up not being able to account for self-willed beings making choices, which is why determinism became so popular (in physics as in Protestantism).

Thomas Doubting said...

Coming back to the idea of revolutions in the 16th and 17th century, I believe the discoveries in the New World beginning in 1492 showed Western Europeans how wrong their ideas about the world were, and those ideas were based on ancient texts. So, the sudden desire to question authority came from that.

However, Leif Ericsson also went to the new world. Why didn't his discoveries sweep Europe and cause revolutions? Because he didn't have access to the movable type printing press. Columbus and other explorers of the New World did; they quickly published and their reports were widely spread throughout Europe.

This also takes us back to witch burning. A key book for bringing about the witch hunting frenzies was Malleus Maleficarum, or Hammer of Witches, published in 1486.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malleus_Maleficarum

This book was also able to become widespread because of the printing press.

So, we had the printing press and its revolution printing all kinds of stuff. The Hammer of Witches probably caused a wide-spread belief in witches and witchcraft. The many discoveries coming out of the New World plainly showed some material in the ancient authoritative texts to be wrong and caused both a questioning of authority and an enthusiasm for observation in natural philosophy.

The connection would seem to be the printing press enabling the rapid and widespread dissemination of ideas.

Thomas Doubting said...

Yes, of course there were many revolutions. The discoveries coming out of the New World after 1492 and the development of the movable type printing press were two more. My point is that there was no one big "Scientific Revolution" but rather a series of developments in natural philosophy, including changing emphasis in methods, that took about 500 years.

As for the methods, Aristotle gave us the method. All of the elements of the modern scientific method were available in the ancient world. The difference was the emphasis on different aspects of it. No one threw out the use of logic, for example, but it became secondary to observation. Mathematical modeling was used at least from the 2nd century in Ptolemy's astronomy and continued to improve as mathematics improved. A change in how experimentation was viewed began probably in the 12th century.

The changes in understanding the natural world began with the re-introduction of the parts of Aristotle the West had lost, including natural philosophy with its well-established methods. Robert Grosseteste, Roger Bacon, and Albertus Magnus were working with this stuff in the 12th and 13th centuries. The "Scientific Revolution" then played out over 500 years, which seems a lot more like evolution or development than a revolution.